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A blog by Guest in General
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Guest

Application of Oskillation

Trying to think of a new topic about which to blog I somehow remembered seeing this video and thought it only appropriate after finishing the unit on oskillaiton. Inspired by the Tacoma Bridge collapse (1st video) Shawn Frayne designed a small wind generator that uses an oskillating tensioned belt to generate energy from the wind (2nd video).

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IqK2r5bPFTM&feature=related

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IqK2r5bPFTM&feature=related

http://www.popularmechanics.com/science/energy/solar-wind/4224763

In 10mph of wind the design produced an output of about 40 milliwatts (true facts) and assuming the system is perfectly efficient, has an amplitude of about 2.5cm, and a belt with mass 4g (these are just assumptions) we may be able to find the frequency of the oskillating belt.

Let's gather some formulas:

We have power and P = W/t

W = ΔKE

When the belt passes through equilibrium Etotal = KE = (1/2)mv^2.

vmax (which occurs at equilibrium) = Aω

ω = 1/T

T = second/cycle

Now if we put them together, focusing on the time t it takes the belt to travel from the amplitude to equilibrium (T/4) we can say that:

P = [(1/2)m(Aω)^2 - 0] / (T/4)

P = 2m(A^2)(1/T)^3

T^3 = (2mA^2)/P

T^3 = 2(0.004kg)(0.025m)^2/(0.040W)

T^3 = 0.000125s^3 (It's always a good sign when your units work)

T = 0.05s

Furthermore, with f = 2π/T we get a frequency of about 126 Hz.

Considering that much of the energy of the belt is lost we can assume that to produce the same milliwatts it oskillates much faster meaning a smaller period and a faster frequency.

Guest

It's not the spoon that bends...



Today, as I was working on the Rotational Motion WebAssign, I remembered that if you drop a spinning basketball, it will bounce back up spinning in the opposite direction. I tried to wrap my head around it and hoped that application of some physics knowledge would reveal the odd phenomenon. So let's check out our basketball:

The ball has:
- an angular velocity ω
- a mass m (of 0.6kg!)
- a radius r (of 0.119m!)
- a moment of inertia i of 0.00569kg*m^2 (A basketball does have air in it but we'll assume it is hollow so i=(2/3)mr^2 )

Now you have a choice. Do you take the blue pill and live out the rest of your boring life? OR Do you take the red pill and dive down the rabbit hole?

If you have in fact entered the Matrix, imagine now that it's not the ball that spins. It's the ground! The ground is of course spinning about the same axis as the ball with an angular velocity of -ω

Now let's consider the earth. Thank you Kevin for the wealth of info! Relative to the ball, the ground has:
- an angular velocity Ω=-ω
- a mass of M 5.9742*10^24kg
- a radius of R 6.3781*10^6m
- a moment of inertia I of 9.7213*10^37kg*m^2 (from (2/5)MR^2 )

Now if we apply conservation of angular momentum:
Lo=Lf w/ L=Iω
Ioωo=Ifωf
I(Ωo)+i(ωo)=I(Ωf)+i(ωf)

To find the final angular velocities we have to find the (I think) the ω of the center of I as the rotational parallel of velocity of center of mass. So if vcm=Ptotal/Mtotal, ωci=Ltotal/Itotal.
ωci=(iω+IΩ)/(i+I)
ωci=((5.69*10^-3)(0)+(9.7213*10^37))(-ω)/(9.7213*10^37+5.69*10^-3) [because the earth is so massive and the ball is so relatively un-massive, I/(I+i) is just like I/I or 1]
ωci=-ω
From the ωci reference we can find the ωf by ωf=2ωci-ωo=2(-ω)-0=-2ω.
Also Ωf=2ωci-Ωo=2(-ω)-(-ω)=-ω. [Again this makes sense due to the earth's massive mass. A basketball is not going affect the earth in any great manner so Ω stays the same] Let's keep moving!

So after the collision, the ball, once at rest, is now rotating at -2ω. BUT WAIT! We're still in the Matrix. Back in the real world the ground is not moving. To get back to zero we have to add ω. Same goes for the basketball. And voila: -2ω+ω=-ω.

So the next time you spin a basketball with ω and it bounces back with -ω, be glad you took the red pill!
Guest

Derivation Unknown

[ATTACH=CONFIG]61[/ATTACH]

So as I was chugging along on the Rotational Motion WebAssign I was startled to notice a seemingly coincidental relationship between my givens and my answer. But after, procrastinating longer than is healthy, trying it with other numbers, the relationship was consistent.

This pertains to question 2 on the WebAssign. I found that, for a record on a turntable with an initial rpm that slows with a constant angular acceleration until rest in time t in minutes, the number of revolutions the record makes before stopping x = (rpm)(t)/2.

So if, when the turntable is shut off, the record is rotating at 100 rpm and comes to a stop in 24 seconds or 0.4 minutes, the record will make (100)(0.4)/2 = 20 revolutions before coming to rest. You can take a step further to find the angular displacement θ by multiplying by 2π . From this we get θ = (rpm)(t)(π)

I am wondering whether there is a clear derivation and reason for this. After linking it to θ, I think I know why it works and makes sense sorta. It's finding an average. Really it should be Δrpm. It's still a little fuzzy to me.

Can you clear it up?

Guest

Physics of the Phollow Through

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=iUzr-4W3imw



One of the most important things to remember when golfing is the ever important Phollow Through. As you can see in the video, Phollowing though increases the time the driver is in contact with the golf ball. Remember that Jimpulse = FΔt = mΔv. Both the average force F and the mass of the golf ball m are constants so increasing the duration t of the Jimpulse will increase the velocity v of the golf ball. Furthermore, if one does not Phollow Through the duration of the impulse will be short and the velocity of the ball will not be enough to cross the pond.

There is a lesser known equation for Jimpulse however: J = Δp = pf - pi = (plaid worn on golf course) - (plaid worn before entering the golf course). Let it be known that plaid does in fact improve your golf game.

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